In this blog you will find the correct answer of the Coursera quiz Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Coursera All Weeks mixsaver always try to brings best blogs and best coupon codes
 

Week- 1

Introduction Quiz

 

1. What is the major risk factor for developing lung cancer?

 

  • Chemical inhalation
  • Smoking
  • Asbestos
  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

2. What are the major risk factors for developing liver cancer?

 

  • Infectious mononucleosis
  • Hepatitis and cirrhosis
  • Hepatitis and poor diet
  • Smoking and cirrhosis

3. What are the major risk factors for developing breast cancer?

 

  • Age, smoking, dense breast tissue
  • Age, + family history, BRCA1 carrier
  • + family history, dense breast tissue, BRCA3 carrier
  • Age, Chemical inhalation, BRCA1 carrier

4. What are the major risk factors for developing prostate cancer?

 

  • Age, + family history, smoking
  • Age, + family history, alcohol abuse
  • Age, + family history, Asian race
  • Age, + family history, African American race

5. Not including all forms of cancer, what is the major cause of death wordwide?

 

  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  • Heart disease
  • Stroke
  • Cancer

6. What is the major cause of death in the US?

 

  • Heart disease
  • Cancer
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Stroke

7. How is cancer best defined?

 

  • Cells that move around the body
  • The study of tumors
  • Spreading growth
  • Uncontrolled growth

8. Name the major types of cancer

 

  • Carcinoma, glioblastoma, sarcoma, lymphoma
  • Mesothelioma, sarcoma, leukemia, lymphoma
  • Carcinoma, sarcoma, leukemia, lymphoma
  • Carcinoma, mesothelioma, leukemia, myeloma

9. What are the four most common cancers in US?

 

  • Lung cancer, leukemia, stomach cancer, breast cancer
  • Breast cancer, colon cancer, lung cancer, prostate cancer
  • Liver cancer, stomach cancer, colon cancer, lung cancer
  • Sarcoma, liver cancer, colon cancer, breast cancer

10. What is the single most important risk factor for developing cancer worldwide?

 

  • Salted foods
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Obesity
  • Smoking

 

 

Week- 2

Genetics Quiz

 

1. How many copies of each gene do humans have?

 

  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8

2. What is a gene?

 

  • how DNA is replicated
  • a unit of heredity made up of DNA
  • a double helix
  • a type of pea plant

3. Who is the father of genetics?

 

  • Charles Darwin
  • Gregor Mendel
  • Samuel Watson
  • Christopher Venters

4. What type of BRCA1/2 mutation do women at increased risk for breast cancer have?

 

  • Inactivating
  • Activating
  • Benign

5. An activating mutation occurs in:

 

  • a tumor suppressor
  • an unrelated gene
  • an oncogene

6. Most genetic variation is:

 

  • Benign
  • Harmful

7. Only one copy of a gene (“allele”) needs to be mutated to be cancer-inducing.

 

  • True
  • False

8. Cancer cells have ______ rate of mutation compared to normal cells.

 

  • a higher
  • an identical
  • a lower

9. The central dogma describes _______.

 

  • How children inherit DNA from their parents
  • How genotype is expressed as a phenotype
  • Transcription of DNA to RNA, translation of RNA to protein, and synthesis of protein

10. DNA damage and replication error arise by

 

  • chance errors during replication
  • neither environmental carcinogens or chance errors during replication
  • environmental carcinogens
  • both environmental carcinogens and chance errors during replication

 

 

Week- 3

Hallmarks Quiz

 

1. One way cancer cells differ from normal cells is metabolism. What effect is this phenomena known as?

 

  • None of these options
  • Watson Effect
  • Telomerase Effect
  • Warburg Effect

2. Typically, cancer cells produce ______ via this process

 

  • Hydrochloric
  • Glucose
  • Lactate

3. Cancer cells differ from normal cells as they are able to up-regulate signals to attenuate CD-8+ T Cell proliferation. What ligand do tumor cells up-regulate?

 

  • PD L1.
  • CP L2.
  • Both of these.

4. Immune cells promote inflammation by secreting _________________.

 

  • water
  • cytokines and chemokines
  • chemokines
  • cytokines

5. Typically, cancer cells are able to evade which type of cells?

 

  • B cells, T cells, and macrophages
  • Macrophages
  • B cells and T cells
  • Other cancer cells

6. One way cancer cells differ from normal cells is that cancer cells can become immortal. Which enzyme do cancer cells use to elongate telomeres?

 

  • None of these options
  • Telomerase
  • Ribosomes
  • DNA

7. Typically, a normal cell will stop dividing once the cell reaches ________

 

  • Hayflick’s Limit.
  • Rivers limit organs
  • Dunn’s limit

8. Cancer cells can typically have mutations and deletions in which of the following?

 

  • Rb.
  • p53
  • Both

9. Other ways cancer cells differ from normal cells is that cancer cells can :

 

  • Harbor an unstable genome
  • Avoid cell death
  • Sustain proliferation
  • Evade growth suppression
  • All of these options

10. Typically, a cancer cell can over-express a gene that contributes to tumor cell proliferation and tumor formation. This gene is known as ________

 

  • a blue gene
  • an oncogene
  • a tumor suppressor

11. Normal eukaryotic cells detect DNA damage and can do what?

 

  • None of these
  • Pause the cell cycle, repair the damage, re-enter the cell cycle
  • Continue the cell cycle

12. Cancer cells form new blood vessels by inducing _______________

 

  • Angiogenesis
  • EMT
  • Intravasation
  • Primary tumor growth

13. Cancer cells initiate this process in order to obtain which of the following. Check all that apply.

 

  • EMT
  • oxygen
  • nutrients

14. Which of the following are key steps in metastasis?

 

  • Intravastion
  • Extravasation
  • Invasion

15. Which hallmark entails immortality of the cancer cells?

 

  • EMT
  • Hallmark # 9 Angiogenesis
  • Hallmark #1 Replicative Immortality
  • Hallmark #10 Activation of metastasis

16. Genes that are found to be deleted or mutationally inactivated in cancers and allow them to grow are called ______________ .

 

  • Tumor Suppressor Genes and Oncogene
  • Nutrients and Tumor Suppressor Genes
  • Tumor Suppressor Genes
  • Oncogenes
  • Nutrients

17. What anti-apoptotic protein was discussed that is seen up-regulated in cancer cells that allows them to resist cellular death?

 

  • Bcl-xL and other Bcl-2 family members
  • None of these
  • XL-B
  • Both of these

18. For cancer cells to evade the immune system, they possess the ability up-regulate ______________ , which suppresses T Cell proliferation.

 

  • VEGF
  • Programmed Death Ligand 1 (PD L1)
  • EMT
  • Telomerase

 

 

Week- 4

Metastasis Quiz

 

1. Which Hallmark of Cancer does NOT promote metastasis?

 

  • Angiogenesis
  • Evading growth suppression
  • None of these options
  • Genome instability

2. Metastasis is…

1

  • The growth of a benign tumor.
  • The spread of cancer to other organs.
  • Prostate cancer growing in the prostate.
  • Cancer cells that die in the circulation.

3. True or false: The prognosis of metastatic cancer is generally more favorable than non-metastatic cancer.

 

  • True
  • False

4. Identify the correct nomenclature for the TNM staging system:

 

  • Thyroid involvement, Nuclear instability, Matrix degradation
  • Tumor size, lymph Node involvement, Metastasis
  • Teratome, Neural degradation, Mucus membrane
  • Tumor size, lymph Node involvement, Malleability

5. Which is the most advanced cancer?

 

  • T2N1M1
  • T2N1M0
  • T3N1M1
  • T1N0M0

6. Identify the correct order of steps of metastasis.

 

  • Primary tumor growth
  • Extravasation
  • EMT
  • Angiogenesis
  • Extravasation
  • Intravasation
  • Growth of secondary tumor
  • Intravasation
  • Angiogenesis
  • Primary tumor growth
  • EMT
  • Survival in circulation

7. Cancer cells initiate this process in order to obtain nutrients and oxygen:

 

  • Extravasation
  • Angiogenesis
  • EMT
  • Intravasation

8. What does the word “homing” mean in the context of metastasis?

 

  • Cancer cells migrate back to the tumor of origin.
  • Cancer cells tend to metastasize to certain organs.
  • The immune system kills cancer cells to defend their home.
  • Cancer cells growing in a tumor create a home in their organ of origin.

9. Movement of an organism (or cancer cells) from its native habitat is…

 

  • Random
  • Low risk
  • High risk
  • Easy

10. Cancer cell proliferation and tumor formation causes an autoeutrophic…

 

  • Garden
  • Cloud
  • Swamp
  • Pond

 

 

Week- 5

Imaging Quiz

 

1. A 25 year old has had a plain film chest x-ray as part of a work-up for his 1-month history of coughing up blood. The chest x-ray showed a mass in the middle right lung. A chest CT scan is ordered. What additional information will the CT scan provide?

 

  • The location of the mass in relation to the other nearby structures.
  • The density of the mass in relation to other nearby structures.
  • The length and width (2 dimensional measurements) of the mass.

2. 3-dimensional imaging is most commonly performed based on the anatomic planes of the human body. An image from the axial view, which is along the transverse plane of the body, separates what areas of the body?

 

  • Left from right
  • Right from left
  • Front from back
  • Head from feet

3. A student is learning about medical imaging. What would be a logical way (which was discussed in the lecture) to categorize the many types of imaging tests?

 

  • By the type of imaging device to be used. (Examples: CT scanner and tube)
  • By the anatomical part of the body to be imaged. (Examples: head imaging and body imaging)
  • By the type of color scale used in the image. (Examples: grey scale and color enhanced scale)
  • By the type of energy used to produce the image. (Examples: magnetic field and sound waves)

4. X-rays are included on the electromagnetic spectrum. What characteristics do they have that allow them to penetrate tissue in the human body to create an image?

 

  • Short wavelength and low energy
  • Long wavelength and low energy
  • Long wavelength and high energy
  • Short wavelength and high energy

5. A 70 year old has smoked tobacco since he was 15 years old. He is healthy. What cancer management technique would be appropriate for him?

 

  • Screening
  • Monitor after therapy
  • Cancer staging
  • Cancer diagnosis

6. A 50 year old has newly diagnosed colon cancer. CT scans of the chest, abdomen and pelvis have been obtained. Why were these particular staging scans obtained?

 

  • They were obtained based on the treatment that is planned- treatment directed staging.
  • They were obtained based on the anatomic areas closest to the colon – anatomic proximity
  • They are based on findings in the diagnostic imaging test.
  • They were obtained based on where colon cancer typically likes to go, also known as tropism.

7. A 25 year old with brain cancer has been treated with surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy. Then he had a brain MRI that showed the brain tumor had decreased in size- a partial response (PR). What was the purpose of the brain scan imaging assessment?

 

  • Measure baseline disease and guide treatment initiation
  • Measure effect of treatment response on nearby structures and guide future imaging
  • Measure treatment response and guide treatment

8. A 60 year old was diagnosed with colon cancer. Staging showed the disease was limited to the colon and to one metastatic lesion in the liver. He was successfully treated with surgery to remove the cancer in the colon and chemotherapy to kill the cancer outside of the colon. Since then he has had monitoring imaging every 6 months, with a CT scan. How does the cancer hallmark “angiogenesis” explain why these scans can be used to monitor him for a possible recurrence of the cancer?

 

  • Viable cancer forms new vessels which take up by the imaging contrast; once the cancer is dead those areas will no longer “light up” on the imaging.
  • Viable cancer has genomic instability, which promotes increased density on imaging scans; once the cancer is dead its genomic profile stabilizes and the cancer density is similar to that of surrounding tissues.
  • Viable cancer has altered metabolic processes and will metabolize sugars at a higher rate; once the cancer is dead those areas will no longer “light up” on imaging.

9. A 55 year old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and the staging imaging showed one additional site of metastasis- in a rib. He has been deemed as having oligometastatic prostate cancer. He is asking why his oligometastasis is different from his friend’s widespread metastasis which was spread in many places throughout his ribs, spine and lymph nodes. Which of the proposed mechanisms of the biology of oligometastasis is NOT TRUE?

 

  • Few of the cancer cells that spread outside of the primary prostate cancer survived circulation throughout the body.
  • The environment inside his prostate cancer primary tumor may not have been harsh, and the cancer cells that broke off and began to spread, were not aggressive
  • Organs where the cancer cells attempted to spread to were not hospitable.
  • Cancer cells that spread to outside organs facilitated angiogenesis and altered cellular metabolism.

10. The 55 year old who was diagnosed with oligometastatic prostate cancer will have a treatment plan with a goal to:

 

  • Control the cancer symptoms
  • Slow the cancer progression
  • Cure the cancer
  • Stabilize the cancer

 

 

Week- 6

Treatment Quiz

 

1. Adjuvant therapy:

 

  • Is the first line therapy for metastatic cancer
  • Occurs prior to surgery to treat a primary tumor
  • Occurs after surgery or radiation to treat a primary tumor
  • Usually includes an immunotherapy

2. The first line therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is:

 

  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy
  • Hormone therapy
  • Targeted therapy

3. Bevacizumab (Avastin®) inhibits:

 

  • HER2
  • VEGF
  • EGFR
  • DNA replication

4. An otherwise healthy man has a small tumor in his lower lung. Correct first line therapy is most likely:

 

  • Chemotherapy
  • Surgery
  • Targeted therapy
  • Hormone therapy

5. The two main ways that chemotherapy attack cancer cells are:

 

  • Stopping cancer cells from metastasizing
  • Stopping DNA replication and cell mitosis
  • Stopping DNA replication and RNA transcription
  • Stopping cell mitosis and RNA transcription

6. Docetaxel (Taxotere®) inhibits cancer cell division by:

 

  • Binding to topisomerase II
  • Binding to DNA
  • Blocking mitosis
  • Binding to T-cells

7. The two checkpoints currently targeted by immunotherapy are:

 

  • PD-1 and PD-2
  • CTLA-4 and CTLA-6
  • PD-1 and CTLA-4
  • BH7 and PD-1

8. The main effector cells targeted by the checkpoint inhibitors is:

 

  • The cancer cells
  • The B-cell
  • Neutrophils
  • T-cells

9. A phase III clinical trial:

 

  • Is done to find out how toxic the new therapy is
  • Tests a new therapy in monkeys
  • Compares the new drug to the standard of care
  • Determines if the new therapy has any activity against a cancer

10. A phase I clinical trial:

 

  • Compares the new drug to the standard of care
  • Finds the maximally tolerated dose of a new agent
  • Tests the new agent in mice
  • Determines how efficacious the agent is against a cancer

 

 

Liver Cancer Quiz

 

1. What are the risk factors for liver cancer?

 

  • Eating a diet high in fruits and vegetables
  • Smoking
  • Asbestos
  • + Family history of hemochromatosis, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C

2. Liver cancer is most likely to be discovered in:

 

  • A 80 year old man with heart disease
  • A 20 year old man who smokes daily
  • A 30 year old woman
  • A 60 year old man chronic Hepatitis B and cirrhosis

3. When staging liver cancer, T stage refers to:

 

  • The size of the liver tumor(s)
  • The histologic type of liver cancer
  • The presence of metastases
  • The number of lymph nodes involved

4. The Child-Pugh system assesses:

 

  • Hepatitis B viral load
  • The size of the primary liver tumor
  • White blood count, red blood count, bilirubin level
  • Prothrombin time, blood albumin level, blood bilirubin level

5. Radiofrequency ablation for liver cancer may be curative when:

 

  • There are 3 tumors present, each greater than 3 cm in diameter
  • There is a single tumor that is 6 cm in diameter
  • There is a single tumor, less than 3 cm in diameter
  • There is liver cancer that has invaded tissue around the liver

6. Sorafenib is safest to use in patients with:

 

  • Child-Pugh Class A
  • Child-Pugh Class C
  • Child-Pugh Class B
  • Child-Pugh Class A, B, or C

7. Patients with cirrhosis:

 

  • Have a higher risk of developing liver cancer
  • Have a higher risk of developing liver cancer and often have a history of Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C infection
  • Often have a history of Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C infection
  • Have a lower risk of developing liver cancer

8. Types of locoregional therapy include:

 

  • Microwave ablation
  • Cyroablation
  • All of these options
  • Radiofrequency ablation

9. The liver:

 

  • Is not necessary for life and can be removed easily
  • Is unique because it has arterial and portal circulations
  • Helps people breathe
  • Makes urine to eliminate waste

10. Liver transplant as a treatment for liver cancer:

 

  • Is the treatment of choice for metastatic liver cancer
  • Is the treatment of choice in Child-Pugh Class C patients
  • Could be the treatment of choice in Child-Pugh Class A patients with a single 3 cm tumor
  • Is the treatment of choice in a Child-Pugh Class B patient with three 5 cm tumors.

 

 

Trustpilot