Q1. Which statement is not an advantage of robotic process automation (RPA)?

  •  Bots are more creative than humans
  •  Bots do no need to take time off
  •  Bots improve efficiency
  •  Bots can eliminate human errors

Q2. What effect does a contra asset account have on a balance sheet?

  •  A contra asset is not an accounting term
  •  A contra asset has a credit balance and therefore a negative effect on total assets
  •  A contra asset with a positive balance will increase overall liabilities
  •  A contra asset has a debit balance and therefore a positive effect on total assets

Q3. Internal controls may be preventative, detective, corrective, or directive. Which is a detective control?

  •  data backups
  •  physical inventory check
  •  employee background checks
  •  physical locks on inventory warehouse

Q4. On March 15, a business receives an invoice from the power company for utilities used in February. The retailer pays the invoice on April 1. The business uses accrual-based accounting. Which month should the business recognize the expense?

  •  April
  •  March
  •  no record required
  •  February

Q5. Which choice is a general guideline for adequate separation of duties to prevent both fraud and error?

  •  A person who has control over an asset should not safeguard that asset.
  •  A person who has temporary or permanent custody of an asset should not account for that asset.
  •  A person who has record-keeping responsibility should not make journal entries.
  •  A person who has operational responsibility should not authorize transactions for the area.

Q6. What does the cost of a unit of product under absorption costing method consist of?

  •  direct materials, direct and indirect labor, and fixed overhead
  •  direct materials, indirect labor, and variable and fixed overhead
  •  direct materials, direct labor, and both variable and fixed overhead
  •  direct materials, direct and indirect labor, and variable overhead

Q7. Which answer best describes accruals and deferrals?

  •  Accruals are past cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are expected future cash receipts and payments.
  •  Both accruals and deferrals are both expected future cash receipts and payments.
  •  Accruals are expected future cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are past cash receipts and payments.
  •  Both accruals and deferrals are not expected past cash receipts and payments.

Q8. What do you call a situation where more than one person collaborates to circumvent existing internal controls?

  •  assigned responsibility
  •  segregation of duties
  •  fraud prevention
  •  collusion

Q9. Which is not an example of an internal control activity?

  •  review of manufacturing plan
  •  segregation of duties
  •  bank reconciliations
  •  approval process

Q10. Which budgeting approach request justification of all expenditures?

  •  zero-based budgeting
  •  master budgeting
  •  rolling budgets
  •  bottom-up budgeting

Q11. What does the discontinued operations section of the income statement refer to?

  •  disposal of a major product line or major geographical area of operations
  •  sale of unused or obsolete equipment and discontinued inventory
  •  a plant shutdown or decommissioning of a facility
  •  net income or loss for products completed and sold

Q12. How are the three financial statements (income, statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement) linked?

  •  Only the assets are reflected in the cash flow statement, and the net income expenses correlate with the liabilities.
  •  The net income goes to retained earnings, but the cash flow remains independent.
  •  The gross profit goes to retained earning, and the shareholder equity total is added to the cash flow statement
  •  The net income goes to the retained earning and to the cash flow statement

Q13. Which is not one of the four perspectives of the balanced scorecard?

  •  internal business
  •  learning and growth
  •  quantitative
  •  customer

Q14. What would be deducted from the balance per books when doing a bank reconciliation?

  •  deposits in transit
  •  bank service fees
  •  outstating checks
  •  electronic fund transfers/payments

Q15. What situation could be the results of the three retails store employees sharing the same cash register?

  •  a thorough internal control activity
  •  a violation of assignment of responsibility
  •  a violation of segregation of duties
  •  a support process to avoid fraud

Q16. A firm has $1,000 in debt and $3,000 in assets. What is the firm's debt-to-equity ratio?

  •  3
  •  2
  •  0.5
  •  0.33

Q17. An external auditor is required to be independent when performing

  •  all attestation services
  •  all professional services
  •  all tax services
  •  all consulting engagements

Q18. Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of

  •  custody, payment, and recording
  •  authorization, custody, and execution
  •  authorization, custody, and recording
  •  custody, execution, and payment

Q19. What does the degree of operating leverage represent?

  •  how much the value of capital assets will change in response to a change in sales
  •  how much the operating income of a company will change in response to a change in sales
  •  the valuation of assets to determine how much additional debt the company can borrow
  •  how much the sales of a company will change in response to a change in operating income

Q20. Which characteristic would concern an auditor about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?

  •  limited employee turnover within the accounting and finance department
  •  management's disregard of regulations and regulatory authorities
  •  regularly reported bank reconciliations, including deposits in transit
  •  capital assets sold at a loss before being depreciated fully

Q21. An employee who makes a sale, ships the goods, and bills the customer violates which control activity?

  •  assignment of responsibility
  •  audit verification
  •  segregation of duties
  •  review and reconciliation

Q22. What trait distinguishes auditors from accountants?

  •  The auditor can interpret accounting principles applicable to the country in which the client operates.
  •  The auditor has extensive education beyond what is required for an accountant
  •  The auditor can adapt to a rapidly changing profession.
  •  The auditor has expertise in the gathering and interpretation of audit evidence.

Q23. What is the purpose of an operational audit?

  •  assessing the company's compliance with environmental laws and regulations
  •  evaluating whether the organization is meeting the metrics set by management in order to achieve the goals and objectives set forth by the board of directors
  •  assessing the organization's control mechanisms for overall efficiency and reliability
  •  evaluating compliance with applicable laws, regulations, policies, and procedures

Q24. Which statement is false?

  •  The balanced scorecard aligns an organization's operational activities with its mission.
  •  The balanced scorecard focuses on these four primary areas: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth.
  •  The balanced scorecard measures, tracks, and reports on a balance of qualitative and financial data and metrics.
  •  The balanced scorecard ensures the organization's profitability aligns with director compensation and dividend expectations.

Q25. Which choice is not a component of internal control?

  •  information and communication
  •  risk mitigation
  •  monitoring
  •  control environment