Question Bank on Mutation | Mutation Quiz PDF | Zoology MCQs
1. Which statement about mutation is false ?
( a ) Mutations can happen at a rate of -10 %
( b ) A change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene is a point mutation
( c ) A change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene doesn’t necessarily change the product of that gene
( d ) Most of mutation are beneficial to the organisms that have them
Ans. d
2. Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are known as
( a ) non – sense mutations
( b ) mis – sense mutations
( c ) backward mutations
( d ) silent mutations
Ans. d
3. A recessive mutation is one which
( a ) is not expressed
( b ) is expressed only when heterozygous
( c ) is expressed only when homozygous or hemizygous
( d ) is eliminated by natural selection
Ans. c
4. Thymine dimer formation during replication of DNA is caused due to the
( a ) gamma radiation
( b ) UV radiation
( c ) X – rays
( d ) IR radiation
Ans. b
5. Which of the following processes would not contribute to genetic variation within a bacterial population ?
( a ) Transduction
( b ) Transformation
( c ) Mutation
( d ) Meiosis
Ans. d
6. Spontaneous mutations caffeine
( a ) are caused by chemicals such as acridine orange and
( b ) are caused by physical agents such as UV light or X – rays
( c ) are the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication
( d ) occur at a rate higher than the rate of induced mutations
Ans. c
7. A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed as
( a ) mis – sense mutation
( b ) non – sense mutation
( c ) silent mutation
( d ) frameshift mutation
Ans. c
8. Which of the following changes to a DNA molecule is least likely to result in a deleterious mutation ?
( a ) Insertion of a transposable element in a coding region
( b ) Deletion of a base pair in a coding region
( c ) Change of a base pair in the first codon of a coding region
( d ) Change of the third base pair of a codon
Ans. d
9. Mutations often occur as a result of base substitutions. The most common cause of base substitution is
( a ) tautomeric shifts
( b ) meiotic errors
( c ) base insertions
( d ) base deletions
Ans. a
10. A tautomeric shift causing the substitution of one purine for a pyramidine is calles
( a ) transversion
( b ) translocation
( c ) transition
( d ) inversion
Ans. a
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11. When a mutational event leads to the replacement of one codon for another coding for the same amino acid , the resulting mutation is known as
( a ) frameshift
( b ) neutral
( c ) mis sense
( d ) silent
Ans. d
12. When bacteria are spread on a plate containing an Antibiotic , colonies of resistant bacteria appear on the plate . The Darwinian explanation for this is that
( a ) the antibiotic induced the resistance
( b ) resistant cells pre – existed in the population and selected by the antibiotic
( c ) no genetic change is required to exhibit antibiotic resistance
( d ) the antibiotic is mutagenic
Ans. b
13. Using site directed mutagenesis four mutant of a protein have been generated . Which of the following missense mutations has the largest difference in terms of number of atoms between the wild type and the mutant ?
( a ) Serto Cys
( b ) Tyr to Phe
( c ) Lys to Ala
( d ) Arg to Lys
Ans. c
14. Which of the following is most likely to lead to a loss of gene function ?
( a ) A missense mutation in the open reading frame
( b ) A change from T to Cin the promoter region
( c ) A frameshift mutation in the coding region
( d ) A sequence change in the three untranslated region
Ans. c
15. In genetics , suppression of a mutation refers to
( a ) restoration of the original phenotype due to a second mutation
( b ) restoration of the onginal DNA sequence by mutation
( c ) prevention of expression of the mutant gene by metabolic regulation
( d ) appearance of the recessive phenotype in a heterozygous diploid
Ans. a
16. A protein that is normally localised to the nucleus has been mutated in such a way that its localisation is no longer nuclear but cytosolic instead . The function of the protein , however is 99 % of the wild type protein . Which of the following could be said about the mutation
( a ) It is a frameshift mutation
( b ) It is a non sense mutation
( c ) It is a silent mutation
( d ) It is a small deletion
Ans. d
17. Mutation is the change in
( a ) gene frequency
( b ) base pairs in the DNA
( c ) genetic drift
( d ) environmental mechanism of evolution
Ans. b
18. Which of the following chemical mutagen is likely to cause GC – AT transitions ?
( a ) 5 bromouracil
( b ) 2 aminopunine
( c ) Acridine orange
( d ) Hydroxylamine
Ans. d
19. Sites where mutations occur at rates higher than normal are known as
( a ) suppressor sites
( b ) hotspots
( c ) mutator sites
( d ) cistrong
Ans. b
20. If GUG – codon is used as a starting codon then it codes for
( a ) valine
( b ) cysteine
( c ) methionine
( d ) leucine
Ans. c
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21. 5 bromouracil
( a ) bonds irreversibly with A
( b ) may resemble C and bond with G
( c ) is analog of Tand pairs with G
( d ) resembles U and would not be incorporated into DNA
Ans. c
22. Tay – Sach’s disease is due to
( a ) sex linked recessive genes
( b ) sex linked dominant genes
( c ) autosomal dominant genes
( d ) autosomal recessive genes
Ans. d
23. Defect in amino acid metabolism may result in
( a ) porphyria
( b ) phenylketonuria
( c ) Wilson’s disease
( d ) Tay – Sach’s disease
Ans. b
24. Mutations altering nucleotide sequence within a gene are
( a ) frameshift mutation
( b ) base pair substitution
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) None of these
Ans. a
25. A normal rate of spontaneous mutation is one in every
( a ) 3√10 – 5√10
( b ) 5√10 – 7√10
( C ) 6√10 – 9√10
( d ) 7√10 – 10√10
Ans. b
26. Phenylketonuria is genetic disorder caused by a deiect in metabolism of
( a ) fatty acid
( b ) polysaccharides
( c ) amino acids
( d ) vitamins
Ans. c
27. Mutation in which a part or complete gene is removed is
( a ) deletion
( b ) inversion
( c ) translocation
( d ) duplication
Ans. a
29. Which one is inherited disorder?
( a ) Albinism
( b ) AIDS
( c ) Parkinson’s disease
( d ) Leprosy
Ans. a
30. Albinism is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme
( a ) amylase
( b ) carbonic anhydrase
( c ) acetylcholine esterase
( d ) tyrosinase
Ans. d
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31. Sickle – cell anaemia is
( a ) metabolic disorder
( b ) genetic disorder
( c ) degenerative disorder
( d ) pathogenic disorder
Ans. b
32. The condition of sickle – cell anaemia is due to the
( a ) silent mutation
( b ) point mutation
( c ) chromosomal mutation
( d ) frameshift mutation
Ans. b
33. Which out of these is not a hereditary diseases ?
( a ) Cystic fibrosis
( b ) Haemophilia
( c ) Cretinism
( d ) Thalassemia
Ans. c
34. A sudden spontaneous change in structure and action of a gene is called
( a ) vanation
( b ) alleomorph
( c ) linkage
( d ) mutation
Ans. d
35. Monosomic and trisomic condition are
( a ) 2n – 12n + 1
( b ) 2n – 12n + 2
( c ) 2n + 1, 2n + 3
( d ) n,n + 1
Ans. a
36. Which is not true of haemophilia ?
( a ) Bleeder’s disease
( b ) Royal disease
( c ) X – linked disorder
( d ) Y – linked disorder
Ans. d
37. Christmas disease is another name of
( a ) sleeping sickness
( b ) Down’s syndrome
( c ) hepatitis
( d ) haemophilia
Ans. d
38. Which of the following disease does not occurs due to a chromosomal abnormalities ?
( a ) Achondroplasia
( b ) Myeloid leukaemia
( c ) Cri – du – chat disease
( d ) Patau’s syndrome
Ans. a
39. Myeloid leukaemia disease is associated with the
( a ) partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
( b ) deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22
( c ) translocation of chromosome 9
( d ) deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22 with translocation on to chromosome 9
Ans. d
40. Choose the mismatch
( a ) Myeloid leukaemia – Deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22 with translocation on to chromosome 9
( b ) Cr – du – chat disease – Partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
( c ) Sickle – cell anaemia – Tetrasomy 23
( d ) Patau’s syndrome – Trisomy 13
Ans. c
Mutation Quiz Answer Key
41. Which of the following trait is not a characteristic of Tumer’s syndrome ?
( a ) Premature character is common
( b ) The cells contains 45 chromosomes
( c ) The offsprings have 50 % of inheriting the disease
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( c )
Ans. d
42. Which of the following feature is not associated with Klinefelter’s syndrome ?
( a ) The Karyotype is always 44+ XXY
( b ) The extra chromosome comes from the mother germ cells
( c ) There is an increased incidence of lens sublucation
( d ) The patient is infertile
Ans. d
43. Which of the following feature is not true regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome ?
( a ) The karyotype may be 47 xXY XXXYY or XXYY
( b ) The patient is tall and has bilateral gynaecomastia
( c ) There is hypogonadism resulting in intertility
( d ) The incidence of breast cancer is decreased
Ans. d
44. If four chromosomes synapse into a CTOSS – starea configuration during meiotic prophase the organish heterozygous for a
( a ) pericentre inversion
( b ) deletion
( c ) translocaton
( d ) paracentric Inversion
Ans. c
45. Philadelphia chromosome is generated by translocation between
( a ) chromosome 18 and chromosome 6
( b ) chromosome 22 and chromosome 9
( c ) chromosome 22 and chromosome 3
( d ) chromosome 16 and chromosome 4
Ans. b
46. Retinoblastoma is cause by loss of both copies of the RR gene in the chromosome band
( a ) 13q11
( b ) 13q11
( c ) 13q14
( d ) 21q14
Ans. b
47. Position effect is the results of
( a ) mutations
( b ) deletions
( c ) inversions
( d ) transversions
Ans. c
48. The bridge – fragment configuration at anaphase is characteristic of
( a ) translocation heterozygote
( b ) paracentric inversion heterozygote
( c ) pericentric inversion heterozygote
( d ) duplication heterozygote
Ans. b
49. A mechanisin that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
( a ) translocation
( b ) inversion
( c ) crossing over
( d ) duplication
Ans. a
50. Pseudodominance may be observed in heterozygotes for
( a ) a deletion
( b ) a duplication
( c ) a reciprocal translocation
( d ) All of these
Ans. a
51. Which of the following chromosomal changes is usually the most damaging when in the homozygous condition ?
( a ) Deletion
( b ) Duplication
( c ) Translocation
( d ) Inversion
Ans. a
52. In a trisomic individual the number of chromosomes is
( a ) 2n – 1
( b ) 2n + 2
( c ) 2n + 3
( d ) 2n+1
Ans. d
53. A person with Klinefelter’s syndrome is considered a
( a ) monosomic
( b ) triploid
( c ) trisomic
( d ) deletion heterozygote
Ans. c
54. If the garden pea has 14 chromosmes in its diploid complement , how many double trisomics could theoretically exist ?
( a ) 6
( b ) 9
( c ) 16
( d ) 21
Ans. c
55. The condition in which there is one to many or one to few chromosomes is called
( a ) aneuploidy
( b ) polytene
( c ) polyploidy
( d ) monoploidy
Ans. a
56. Most cases of Down’s syndrome are caused by the presence of a third copy of chromosome 21 associated with the chromosome 21 pair . This genetic condition , known as trisomy 21 , is caused by
( a ) a frameshift mutation
( b ) chromosome non – disjunction
( c ) fragile X – syndrome
( d ) chromosome translocation
Ans. b
57. People with Klinefelter’s syndrome have 47 chromosomes , including three sex – chromosome ( XXY ) . What is the term to describe the aberration that occurs during meiosis that results in abnormal chromosome number ?
( a ) Crossing over
( b ) Non – disjunction
( c ) Independent assortment
( d ) Pairing of homologous chromosome
Ans. b
58. Which statements about Down’s syndrome is correct ?
I. The frequency increases dramatically in mothers over the age of 40 .
II . The cause is a non – disjunction when chromosomes do not separate during the first meiotic division .
III . Affected individuals have an extra autosome .
IV . The long time lag between onset of meiosis in ovarian tissue and its completion ( at ovulation ) is most likely the reason for increased incidence in older mothers .
( a ) I and IV
( b ) Ill and III
( c ) II , III and IV
( d ) I , II , III and IV
Ans. d
59. An individual with two normal sets of autosomes and a single X – chromosome has
( a ) Down’s syndrome
( b ) Patau’s syndrome
( c ) Turner’s syndrome
( d ) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Ans. c
60. An individual with the chromosomal description 45 , X would be a
( a ) normal female
( b ) temale with Tumer’s syndrome
( c ) male with Klinefelter’s syndrome
( d ) cannot be determined
Ans. b
61. Phenyekletonuria , Huntington’s disease and sickle – cell anaemia are caused by disorders associated with chromosomes
( a ) 7, 11 and 12
( b ) 12 , 4 and 11
( c ) 11,4 and 12
( d ) 4 , 7 and 11
Ans. b
62. Melanurea ( black urine ) is caused by abnormal catabolism of
( a )alanine
( b ) tyrosine
( c ) proline
( d ) tryptophan
Ans. b
63. Mutations which normally happen randomly are considered one of the raw materials for evolution because they
( a ) contribute to new variation in organism
( b ) cause death of organism
( c ) are stable
( d ) None of the above
Ans. a
