1.Acetyl salicylate & phenobarbitone are better absorbed from stomach because they are   

a) Weak acids remain non-ionic in gastric pH       

b) Weak acids remain ionic in gastric pH

c) Strong acids fully ionized in gastric pH

d) Weak bases which are ionized at gastric pH



2.Chlorpropamide metabolism is enhanced by

a) Ethyl alcohol         

b) Diazepam                      

c) Lorazepam                     

d) Chloridazepoxide



3.Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96(g/ml).f t Vi is 2 hours concentration in plasma at 10 hours will be

a) 48






4.The factors contributing to the unequal distribution of drugs are all except:

a) Heterogenesity of the drug                

b) Binding to plasma proteins

c) Cellular binding

d) Concentration in body fat

e) Blood-brain barrier



5.Protein binding of a drug helps in

a) Distribution           

b) Prolonging half life        

c) Limiting metabolism       

d) All of the above



6.All of following are examples of prodrugs except

a) Levodopa              

b) Enlapril                          

c) Omeprazole                    

d) Indomethacin



7.Drug levels should be monitored in the treatment of

a) Diabetes                

b) Epilepsy                       

c) Status Asthmatics         

d) Hypertension



8.AH are prodrugs except


b) Paracetamol                   

c) Sulphamethoxazole        

d) Trimethoprim



9.Which drug has a high first pass effect

a) Amiodarone

b) Phenytoin

c) Verapamil

d) Disopyramide



10.AH of the following do not cross the blood brain barrier except

a) Pyridostigmine       

b) Neostigmine                  

c) Physostigmine               

d) Ambenonium



11.Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show:

a) Additive sedative action

b) Reduced sedative action

c) Competitive antagonism

d) Chemical antagonism     

e) None of the above




12.Administration of sulfonamide may intensify the action of tolbutamide, through:

a) Activation of the islets of pancreas  

b) Direct action on the utilization of glucose

c) Synergistic action

d) Competing with tolbutamide in plasma protein binding




13.The major factor in terminating the action of ethanol is

a) Biotransformation

b) Excretion through lungs

c) Excretion unchanged in urine

d)Excretion in feces

e) None of the above




14.The study of dose, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs in the body is known as

a) Pharmacognosia   

b) Pharmacodynamics       

c) Dose effective study     

d) Pharmacotherapy




15.Which of the following is seen in first order kinetics

a) Rate depends upon plasma cone.                    

b) Rate does not depend on plasma cone.

c) Rate depends upon plasma protein binding    

d) Elimination depends upon amount of drug




16.All of the following pairs of drug compete for the same receptors except

a) Ranitidine and histamine

b) Metoclopramide and dopamine

c) Dicyclomine and adrenaline

d) Benzhexol and acetylcholine




17.All are true except

a)Acidic drugs bind to albumin & basic to acid glucoprotein

b)All drugs have the same binding sites and mev compete for them

c)Increased dosage will cause decrease in free drug in plasma throughout the therapeutic range




18.  Idiosyncrasy is:

a)A genetically determined abnormal reaction to drugs

b)A characteristic toxic effect at therapeutic doses

c)An altered physiological state produced by repeated drug use

d)An immunologically mediated reaction




19.Not metabolized in liver


b) Phenytoin

c) Diazepam 

d) Penicillin G




20.The following drug is not secreted in bile

a) Penicillin

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Novobiocin 

d) Erythromycin




21.Alcohol should not be given with

a) Sulphonamides     

b) Clonidine

c) Reserpine

d) Metronidazole




22.Methanol causes blindness due to its

a) Hypersensitivity reactions 

b) Conjugated products 

c) Idiosyncratic reaction

d) Oxidative products




23. The combination of propranolol & nifedipine in essential hypertension is used because  

a) CNS effects of propanolol are prevented        

b) Pedal edema of nifedipine is prevented

c)Alteration of serum lipids by propranolol is prevented

d)Reflex sympathetic activity of nifedipine is prevented




24.Which cytochrome is responsible for drug metabolism?








25.  Drugs significantly affected by enzyme induction include the following except:

a) Barbiturate

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Diphenyl hydantoin       

d) Warfarin




26.What is a prodrug

a) Drag which increases efficiency of another drug    

b) Metabolic end product

c) Inactive drag which gets activated in the body     

d) Drag which competes with another for metabolism




27.  The Alkaline Drug (Amidopyrine) is absorbed from

a) Stomach

b) Proximal small intestine 

c) Distal small intestine      

d) Colon




28.Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Most drags are absorbed in ionized form        

b) Basic drags are generally bound to plasma albumin

c)Microsomal enzymes are located in the mitochondria of hepatic cells

d)Blood brain barrier is deficient at the chemo receptor trigger-zone




29.Substrate concentration & velocity curve indicates

a) Michelis-Mentons equation    

b) Inverse relation     

c) Zero order kinetics   

d) All of the above




30. Drugs mostly cross biological membranes by

a) Passive diffusion

b) Active diffusion

c) Active transport

d) Carrier mediated transport

e) All of the above




31. All the following cross placenta except

a) Warfarin

b) Heparin

c) Phenindione

d) Morphine




32.  The drug, which interferes with metabolism of theophylline

a) Gentamicin

b) Penicillin

c) Erythromycin

d) Sulfonamide




33.  Km value indicates

a) Purity of enzyme   

b) Physiological role

c) Half life enzyme drug complex      

d) Affinity




34.All of following drugs are metabolized in body by acetylation except:

a) INH

b) Hydralazine

c) Procainamide

d) Dilantin




35.All are explained on pharmacogenetic conditions except

a) G6PD deficiency

b) Warfarin insensitivity

c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

d) Malignant hyperthermia




36.Most common indication for therapeutic monitoring of plasma levels of a drug is

a) Hit & run drugs

b) Drugs with irreversible action

c) Narrow therapeutic range

d) Failure of response




37. Which of the following drugs do not cross the placenta

a) Dilantin

b) Diazepam

c) Acinocoumarin

d) Heparin




38.TVi of a drug can determine all the following

a) Closing interval

b) Elimination time

c) Steady Plasma Concentration

d) Therapeutic dosage




39.Zero order kinetics is seen with

a) Phenytoin

b) Phenobarbital

c) Erythromycin

d) Digoxin




40.Drug which crosses the placental barrier is:

a) Phenytoin

b) Diazepam

c) Corticosterioids

d) All of the above




41.The following drugs are excreted in the bile except:

a) Erythromycin        

b) Novobiocin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Rifampicin




42.The Combination of amoxycillin + clavulanic acid is used because

a) It broadens the spectrum of amoxycillin

b) It decreases the side effect of amoxycillin

c) It decreases the toxicity of clavulanic acid      

d) It increases the oral bio availability of amoxycillin




43.   Flushing occurs when alcohol is taken along with

a) Phenformin

b) Chlorpropamide

c) Glibenclamide

d) Tolbutamide




44. Which of the following avoids first pass effect of drugs

a) Oral ingestion       

b) Rectal Suppository        

c) Intra venous injection    

d) Intra-arterial injection




45. All are pro drugs except

a) Sulindac

b) Codeine

c) Talampicillin

d) Chlorpromazine




46.The elimination of following drugs is dose dependant except

a) Phenytoin

b) Salicylate

c) Theophylline

d) Chlorpromazine




47.Drug which interferes with metabolism of theophylline is:

a) Erythromycin        


c) Penicillin

d) Furazolidone




48.What is the interaction of pheno barbiton and warfarin

a) Displacement of warfarin from binding site     

b) Decreased absorption of warfarin

c)Increased metabolism of warfarin

d) Decreased metabolism of warfarin




49.Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of

a) Potency

b) Safety

c) Toxicity

d) Efficacy




50.Zero order kinetics are seen in all except

a) Salicylate 

b) Atenolol                        

c) Barbiturates                   

d) Ethanol




51.All of the following are protein bound except:

a) Propranolol

b) Atenolol

c) Phenylbutazone

d) Warfarin




52.Pick the true statement:

a)Amox- Clavulanic, Clavulanic increases amox activity

b)Sublactum is used in treatment of Leprosy     

c) Aztreonam is a metabolite of clarithromycin

d)Cilastatin imipenam- cilastatin prevents hydrolysis of imipenam




53.Drug absorbed by active transport is

a) Propranolol

b) Ergotamine

c) Levodopa

d) Amantidine




54.Following are the true receptors, except one

a) Beta adrenergic receptors   

b) Na-K-ATP ase     

c) Phosphodiesterase     

d)Plasma proteins




55.Which of the following is not a dose related reaction:

a) Myocardial Irritation of Quinidine

b) Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide

c)Digitalis induced arrythmia

d) Drug fever of sulpha




56.Theophylline levels in blood are increased by:

a) Erythromycin        

b) Ciprofloxacin

c) Smoking

d) Digitalis




57.What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs

a) Prevents first pass effect

b) Easy to administer

c) Lipid soluble

d) Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity




58.Ciprofloxacin increases the toxicity of theophylline by

a) Inhibiting metabolism

b) Decreasing excretion

c) Decrease seizure threshold

d) Promote absorption




59.Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is

a) 84%







60.All the following induce hepatic enzymes except

a) Rifampicin

b) Phenytoin

c) Barbiturates

d) Tolbutamide




61.Which of the following shows high first pass metabolism:

a) Propranolol     

b) Phenobarbitone     

c) Phenylbutazone     

d) Phenytoin 

e)Reflex esophagitis




62.Enterohepatic circulation is seen in

a) Ampicillin

b) Benzylpenicillin

c) Norfloxacin

d) Streptomycin




63.Least half life is for which hormone

a) Nor adrenaline       

b) Renin

c) Aldosterone

d) Thyroxine




64.Not a prodrug

a) Lisinopril 

b) Enalapril

c) Ramipril

d) Famotidine





65.No physical dependence is seen in:

a) Dextropropoxyphene

b) Fortwin

c) Fluoxetine

d) Alprax




66.Slow channel syndrome is due to

a) Accumulation of Na + ions in channels 

c) Accumulation of Mg++ ions in channels

b) Accumulation of K+ ions in channels 

d) Accumulation of Ca++ ions in channels




67.  First dose phenomenon is a characteristic side effect on initiation of antihypertensive therapy with

a) Minoxidil


c) Metroprolol

d) Prazosin




68. Serum level of drug is monitored when the patient is on

a) Lithium

b) Haloperidol

c) Diazepam

d) Acetazolamide




69.L-Dopa is

a) Converted to methyl dopa in the body 

b) Antagonised by riboflavine 

c) Antagonized by nicotinic acid

d) Combined with carbidopa for enhanced effect




70.All the following statements regarding treatment of parkinson's disese are correct except

a)Levodopa is usually administered alone (KAR93)

b)Amantadine is effective in the treatment of early disease

c)Bromocryptine is a useful dopamine receptor agonist

d)Patient may require medication every 2 hours




71.Which statement about clonidine is false

a)Useful in the management of opiate withdrawal syndrome

b)Claimed to have prophylactic value in migraine

c) It is alpha-2 receptor stimulant 

d) It is safe on abrupt termination of treatment




72.Ipratropium bromide is

a) Bronchoselective anticholinergic                                   

b) Used as mydriatic

c)A selective MI anticholinergic useful in peptic ulcer      

d) An antiparkinsonism drug




73.Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is 

a) Propranolol



d) Nadolol




74. Which statement is false of Domperidone

a) Chemically related to haloperidol

b) Pharmacologically related to metoclopramide

c)Extra pyramidal symptoms are common

d)It counteracts the emetic action but not the therapeutic effect in parkinsonism




75.Which of the following causes rise in systolic as well as diastolic BP for prolonged period:

a) Ephedrine

b) Epinephrine

c) Dopamine

d) Norepinephrine




76. Amphetamine is used in

a) Narcolepsy

b) Psychosis

c) Anxiety disorders

d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis




77.Drug of choice in phenothiazine induced parkinsonism is

a) Levodopa

b) Haloperidol

c) Metoclopramide

d) None of the above




78.All of the following are adverse effects of phenothiazines except

a) Rigidity and tremor

b) Menstrual irregularities

c) Cholestatic jaundice

d) Systolic hypertension




79. Which antiepileptic drug does not act as GABA agonist?

a) Phenytoin

b) Sodium valproate

c) Diazepam

d) Phenbarbitone




80. Which phenothiazine has the least extra pyramidal effect

a) Thioridazine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Triflupromazine

d) Fluphenazine




81.  Dopamine is:

a) Alpha and beta agonist       

b) Beta agonist    

c) A beta blocking agent   

d) Alpha blocking agent




82.  I.V. fluphenzine decanoate is drug of choice in:

a) Simple Schizophrenia 

b) Hebephrenic Schizophrenia 

c) Catatonic Schizophrenia

d) Paranoid Schizophrenia




83. Bromocriptine is

a) A partial agonist of dopamine

b) A partial antagonist of dopamine

c) Used in the treatment of parkinsonism

d) Used to reduce GH secretion in acromegaly

e) All except b are correct




84.In an acute attack of migraine, the drug of choice is

a) Ergotamine tartrate

b) Methysergide

c) Propranolol

d) Caffeine




85.The ganglion blocking drugs act by

a)Competing with acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions

b)Preventing release of acetylcholine   

c) Preventing nerve conduction in post ganglionic segment 

d)Preventing catecholamine release or inactivating it




86.Not an antidepressant

a) Amitryptilline        

b) Fluoxetin

c) Trazodone

d) Pimozide




87.Beta blocker are used in all, except

a) Variant angina       

b) Mild hypertension

c) Glaucoma

d) Thyrotoxicosis




88.Which of the following is the longest acting newer antihistamine:

a) Mequitazine

b) Loratidine

c) Astemizole

d) Terfenadine




89. Phenylephrine is useful for all of the following except

a) Anaphylactic shock

b) Mydriasis

c) Nasal decongestant       

d) Artial tachycardia




90. B-Blockers are contra indicated in

a) Hypertension        

b) Congestive cardiac failure    

c) Anxiety states

d) Hyperthyroidism




91.Drug of choice in motion sickness is

a) Metoclopramide    

b) Transdermal scopalamine     

c) Diphenhydramine   

d) Chlorpromazine




92.All increase dopaminergic transmission except

a) Bromocriptine       

b) Metoclopramide

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Reserpine




93. Which antiepileptic drug in therapeutic doses causes least sedation?

a) Primidone

b) Clonazepam

c) Phenytoin

d) Phenobarbitone




94.Tianeptin is

a) 5-HT antagonist

b) Nor adrenaline uptake inhibitor

c) 5-HT reuptake enhancer      

d) Dopamine antagonist




95.The following are recognized effects of propranolol except

a) Increases microcoronary blood flow

b) Decrease in heart rate

c) Decrease in cardiac output

d) Reduction in ventricular systolic pressure




96.Nicotinic receptors are seen in

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Visceral smooth muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Salivary glands




97.Antiemitic used to prevent aspiration in emergency surgery

a) Ondansetrone       

b) Promethazine

c) Metoclopromide



     Ans: b


98.Drugs which increase GABA levels in brain

a) Diazepam      

b) Phenobarbitone       

c) Sodium valproate

d) Carbamazepine




99.Midazolam as compared to diazepam is:

a) Less cerebroprotective       

b) More cerebroprotective

c) Same as diazepam

d) No cerebroprotective effect



100. Which is a 5HT-receptor agonist?

a) Ondansetron

b) Ketanserine

c) Sumatriptan

d) Risperidone